A 'Concession' meaning 'for the hardness of your hearts'?
Is I Cor 7:2 a ‘concession’ that Paul gave in the same sense that Moses ‘suffered’ divorce?
First the relevant verses:
1Co 7:1 Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. 1Co 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. 1Co 7:3 Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband. 1Co 7:4 The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband: and likewise also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife. 1Co 7:5 Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency. 1Co 7:6 But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment. 1Co 7:7 For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that. 1Co 7:8 I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I.
1Co 7:9 But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn.Mat 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. Mat 19:10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. Mat 19:11 But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. Mat 19:12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.My answer is this: No, and indeed they are nearly as opposite as it is capable to be.
Starting with the groundwork first of all. It is written:
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.This means that whatever the ‘concession’ of I Cor 7:6 means or doesn’t mean, it cannot mean that I Cor 7:2 is not profitable for doctrine. No interpretation can be acceptable which vitiates I Cor 7:2, or, worse, interprets it as meaning the opposite of what it says.
Secondly, lest us look at the passage it is being compared to.
Deu 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
The first thing we need to notice about this verse is that it begins with two sins. First of all, the eyes of the man have ‘found no favor’ in his wife. This is a violation of an affirmative precept, multiple times repeated. As it is written:
Pro 5:18 Let thy fountain be blessed: and rejoice with the wife of thy youth. Pro 5:19 Let her be as the loving hind and pleasant roe; let her breasts satisfy thee at all times; and be thou ravished always with her love.A man is commanded to love his wife, to rejoice in her, to be satisfied with her at all times. So the man mentioned in Deut 24 has already disobeyed.
Secondly, he has found ‘an uncleanness’ in his wife. One type of uncleanness (that Jesus himself brings up) is fornication/adultery. This kind of uncleanness leads to a legal and moral (if not commanded) divorce. Other types of uncleanness (perhaps consistent disobedience, etc.) could lead to a legal (according to levitical law) but not moral (condemned by Christ Himself, and in violation of the Act of Marriage written in Genesis) divorce.
Thus ‘due to the hardness of their hearts’ Moses allowed for a legal divorce. Where a man and his wife were both in active sin, they were not to be civily punished for ceasing to live together. And the man (who had the greater fault as the leader in his home, responsible for both his sin and hers) was required not to sell his wife, or leave her in legal limbo while not providing her rights (food, clothing, and conjugal rights), but to give her a document which freed her to marry again.
Contrast this with I Cor 7:2.
1Co 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.Here we have someone who is tempted with sin, and an escape (or aid) is provided. We are specifically told that if he acts in obedience to this “he has not sinned”. (I Cor 7:7).
So the two passages are opposed in every way. In one case some who is actively sinning is married to someone else who is actively sinning, and instead of turning to obey the law and the gospel he instead violates Gods teachings and blasphemes against Christ… and is forced to make his disobedience public.
In the second case someone recognizes that they don’t have a rare gift from Christ and acts in direct obedience to Gods Word pattern and precept; following the example of practically all of the Godly men in Scripture.
My translation/paraphrase/interpretation summarizing these verses and other related verses:
You wrote me asking if it was good for a man not to touch a woman, ie not get married. Certainly that is good. But the problem of fornication means that, in general, all men should marry, and all women should marry. In marriage one needs to be constantly available for your spouse. In fact the body of the husband does not belong to him, but to his wife; and her body does not belong to her, but to him. You shouldn't be abstaining from the natural act of marriage. Occasionally, for short times, if you are both in true agreement, you might want to spend some time fasting and praying; and that could also involve abstaining from the kind of food that is represented in the marriage bond. But this particular kind of fasting must be short, or you will be tempted. You will end up with the same problem that you got married to help avoid!
Obviously I don't 'command' marriage. It would be wonderful if everyone was able, as I am, to live the celibate life and dedicate themselves completely to God, with the flexibility to travel, the singleness of focus, etc. But God has not given everyone the gift of being a eunuch for Christ. It is a rare gift. So those that don't have it should marry. Those that do, shouldn't.
Some Commentators on these verses:
John Gill
1Co 7:6 - But I speak this by permission,.... Referring either to what he had said before, though not to all; not to 1Co_7:2 that for the avoiding of fornication, every man should make use of his own wife, and every woman of her own husband; since this is not by permission, but by command, Gen_2:24 that carnal copulation should be between one man and one woman in a married state; nor to 1Co_7:3 for that married persons ought to render due benevolence to, and not defraud each other, having a power over each other's bodies, is a precept, and not a permission, Exo_21:10 but to 1Co_7:5 their parting for a time, and coming together again: it is not an absolute command of God that they should separate for a time, on account of fasting and prayer, but if they thought fit to do so by agreement, they might; nor was there any positive precept for their coming together again directly, after such service was over. The apostle said this,
not of commandment; but, consulting their good, gives this advice, lest Satan should be busy with them, and draw them into sin; but if they had the gift of continence, they might continue apart longer; there was no precise time fixed by God, nor did the apostle pretend to fix any: or it may refer to what follows after, that he would have all men be as he was; though he laid no injunction, but left them to their liberty; unless it can be thought to regard marriage in general, and to be said in opposition to a Jewish notion, which makes marriage מצוה, a "command";
"a man, they say (f), is bound to this command at seventeen years of age, and if he passes twenty and does not marry, he transgresses, and makes void an affirmative precept;''
but the apostle puts it as a matter of choice, and not of obligation.
Matthew Henry
III. The apostle limits what he had said about every man's having his own wife, &c. (v. 2): I speak this by permission, not of command. He did not lay it as an injunction upon every man to marry without exception. Any man might marry. No law of God prohibited the thing. But, on the other hand, not law bound a man to marry so that he sinned if he did not; I mean, unless his circumstances required it for preventing the lust of uncleanness.
Calvin
By permission That they might not, by taking their stand upon a precept of the kind that he had prescribed, loosen unduly the restraints of lust, 380380 “Leurs affections desordonnees;” — “Their inordinate affections.” he adds a limitation — that he had written these things on account of their infirmity — that they may bear in mind that marriage is a remedy for unchastity